DETAILED CSC2 STUDY PLAN & VALID CSC2 TEST ANSWERS

Detailed CSC2 Study Plan & Valid CSC2 Test Answers

Detailed CSC2 Study Plan & Valid CSC2 Test Answers

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Tags: Detailed CSC2 Study Plan, Valid CSC2 Test Answers, CSC2 Latest Test Simulator, CSC2 Reliable Exam Vce, CSC2 Test Practice

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Valid CSC2 Test Answers & CSC2 Latest Test Simulator

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):

NEW QUESTION # 10
Which derivatives transaction has the greatest default risk?

  • A. Individual investor entering future contract with an institutional investor.
  • B. Exchange-traded equity option contract between an individual investor and a dealer.
  • C. Individual investor buying shares on an exchange during the ex-rights period.
  • D. Interest rate forward agreement between an investment dealer and a corporation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Aninterest rate forward agreement (FRA)is anover-the-counter (OTC)derivative contract. Unlike exchange- traded derivatives, OTC contracts are not centrally cleared, meaning there is nointermediary to guarantee performance. This increases counterparty (default) risk, making FRAs inherently riskier than exchange-traded contracts.
* A. Individual investor buying shares on an exchange during the ex-rights period: This is a standard transaction involving equity securities, not derivatives, and carries no default risk.
* C. Exchange-traded equity option contract between an individual investor and a dealer: Exchange- traded derivatives are backed by a clearinghouse, which mitigates default risk.
* D. Individual investor entering a futures contract with an institutional investor: Futures contracts are also exchange-traded and centrally cleared, reducing default risk.


NEW QUESTION # 11
The Bank of copyright uses an operating band to help manage the oversight rate. How wide is the operating Band?

  • A. 100 basis points.
  • B. 50 basis points
  • C. 75 basis points
  • D. 25 basis points

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Bank of copyright uses anoperating band of 50 basis pointsto manage the overnight rate. The top of the band is theBank Rate, and the bottom is the rate the Bank pays on settlement balances. The overnight rate typically operates within this band.
* A. 25 basis points: This is too narrow to accommodate monetary operations.
* B. 75 basis points: This is wider than the standard operating band.
* D. 100 basis points: This is incorrect; the operating band is 50 basis points.


NEW QUESTION # 12
What is the main benefit of investing in preferred shares?

  • A. Higher potential for capital appreciation than common shares.
  • B. Priority to claim assets ahead of debt holders.
  • C. Priority to receive fixed dividends ahead of common shareholders.
  • D. Guaranteed dividend payment.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Preferred shares provide investors withpriority to receive fixed dividends ahead of common shareholders.
This fixed income feature makes preferred shares similar to debt instruments but with characteristics of equity. While preferred shareholders have no guaranteed dividend payment (subject to the company's discretion and profitability), they are entitled to receive dividends before any distribution to common shareholders.
Preferred shares do not have a higher potential for capital appreciation compared to common shares, as they are typically designed for income rather than growth. Additionally, preferred shareholders have a lower claim on assets compared to debt holders.


NEW QUESTION # 13
Tom sold some bonds in his RRSP and used the total $100,000 in proceeds to buy a 75% guaranteed segregated fund. Three years later, Tom died. At the time of his death, the market value of the segregated fund was $700,000. Assuming no interim withdrawal on market value reset, what is the death benefit payable from this investment?

  • A. $5, 000
  • B. $30,000
  • C. $0,
  • D. $70,000

Answer: B

Explanation:
Key Concepts:
A segregated fund with a guaranteed death benefit ensures that the investor (or their estate) receives at least a certain percentage of the initial investment in case of death. This percentage is applied to the original investment amount, and if the market value of the segregated fund at the time of death is lower than this guaranteed amount, the insurance company pays the shortfall.
Step-by-step Explanation:
* Initial Investment in the Segregated Fund:Tom invested$100,000into a segregated fund with a75% death benefit guarantee.
* Guaranteed amount = 75% × $100,000 =$75,000.
* Market Value at the Time of Death:The market value of the segregated fund is$70,000at the time of Tom's death.
* Shortfall Calculation:The guaranteed amount ($75,000) isgreaterthan the market value ($70,000).
* Shortfall = $75,000 - $70,000 =$5,000.
* Death Benefit Payable:Since the segregated fund guarantees at least $75,000, the insurance company will pay the shortfall of$5,000to the estate.
* Option A ($0):Incorrect; there is a shortfall between the guaranteed amount and the market value, so a payout will occur.
* Option B ($70,000):Incorrect; this is the market value, not the shortfall amount.
* Option C ($30,000):Incorrect; this value does not align with the 75% guarantee calculation.
* Option D ($5,000):Correct;this is the shortfall amount payable as the death benefit.
References to Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Study Materials:
* Volume 2, Chapter 22 - Segregated Funds
* Explains death benefit guarantees in segregated funds and how the shortfall is calculated.
* Volume 2, Chapter 24 - Canadian Taxation
* Highlights how RRSP investments, such as segregated funds, are treated upon the investor's death.
* Volume 2, Chapter 26 - Working with the Retail Client
* Discusses estate planning considerations, including the role of segregated funds in ensuring financial protection.


NEW QUESTION # 14
What is the meaning of ex-ante return?

  • A. The real return on the security.
  • B. The expected return of the security.
  • C. The return of the security based on the risk-free rate.
  • D. The historical return of the security.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Ex-ante return refers to the anticipated or expected return of an investment, based on forecasts rather than historical performance. This concept is critical in portfolio management and investment decision-making:
* Forecasting Returns:
* Ex-ante return estimates are derived from market conditions, expected economic performance, and specific security characteristics.
* Analysts use models like the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to estimate expected returns based on the asset's risk profile and the risk-free rate.
* Differentiation from Historical Returns:
* Unlike ex-post (historical) returns, which reflect actual past performance, ex-ante returns guide future investment decisions.
* Importance in Portfolio Management:
* Portfolio managers rely on ex-ante returns to construct portfolios aligned with investment objectives, considering risk and return trade-offs.
* Real vs. Nominal Returns:
* Ex-ante returns can be adjusted for inflation to reflect real expected returns, providing a more accurate picture of purchasing power gains.
References to Study Documents:
* Volume 2, Chapter 15, "Introduction to the Portfolio Approach," explores the estimation of expected returns and their role in portfolio management.
* Volume 1, Chapter 7, "Fixed-Income Securities: Pricing and Trading," includes calculations and applications related to expected and realized returns.


NEW QUESTION # 15
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